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> But can Microsoft really go to a court and say "hey judge, we're Microsoft, we want a warrant for Microsoft to provide this"?

Yes. They want people to use their products, don't they? I'm not going to spend money on a product that gives me zero assurance that I have control of my information.



Can you cite any precedent where a court has agreed to hear such an argument? This is not a rhetorical question - I'm genuinely curious whether civil procedure allows it. As a non-lawyer (and MSFT employee) who is interested in the law, the closest thing I can think of is a motion for declaratory judgment, but even there I think you need an actual case or controversy before the judge will hear arguments.




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