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> 150 years ago, the average person was illiterate

Not true in the case of the US, which famously adopted a culture of universal literacy earlier than the rest of the world. By the mid-19th century, literacy rates among whites were not much different than they are today. It is one of the bright spots of American history; they took literacy very seriously for complicated historical reasons. Their book consumption per capita was also the highest in the world by a very large margin back in those days, which lends evidence.

It may or may not be relevant to your point, but at least in the US the idea that the average person was illiterate is ahistorical. They were the best read population in the world 150 years ago, and took some pride in that.



I was surprised to read this post. Thank you to share. From Wiki, I found: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Literacy_in_the_United_States

    > By 1875, the U.S. literacy rate was approximately 80 percent.
And:

    > By 1900, the situation had improved somewhat, but 44% of black people remained illiterate.
And:

    > The gap in illiteracy between white and black adults continued to narrow through the 20th century, and in 1979, the rates were approximately equal.


> By the mid-19th century, literacy rates among whites were not much different than they are today

But the states does have among the lowest literacy rate in the west. Less than 80% was considered literate in 2024, compared to almost 99% in the EU (with a range from 94% to almost 100%).


Of the 20% of US adults who don't have a level of literacy necessary to be considered "literate", 40+% are from other countries with low levels of literacy.


Wrong signal. The problem is demographic. Not being mean, just a fact that a lot of people are illiterate live in the US, but were not born and raised here.


Success itself could be to blame for the recent reversion.


My read of history is that the puritans basically had universal literacy not that long after the printing press hit Europe. I believe America and Israel are unique among modern countries in being founded by people whose ancestors had achieved universal literacy in the 1500s.


Something like that. They believed it was important that everyone was literate enough to read and understand the Bible themselves, without it being filtered through a historically corrupt Church that engaged in selective representation and interpretation of the Bible for their own manipulative purposes. Basically, they wanted everyone to be able to go to the source to determine what was and wasn’t moral and Christian, instead of relying on assertions by self-interested third parties.

Regardless of if they achieved their religious objectives, that earnest mission to make every human soul capable of reading the Bible for themselves produced the social good of a literate population capable of reading prodigious amounts of non-Bible content.

It is an interesting consequence of how the religious wars in Europe spilled over into in the early Americas.


Like most social breakthroughs, this was coincident with a major technological breakthrough: the invention of the printing press.


I'm gonna go out on a limb and guess that you very firmly identify as an american christian. Your persistent denial of empathy and your insistence on your individual language being presented as generally meaningful screams american christian.


Personal attacks and/or religious flamewar will get you banned on HN. You can't post like this or https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=42712561 here.

If you'd please review https://news.ycombinator.com/newsguidelines.html and stick to the rules when posting here, we'd appreciate it.


I would argue the downside was that this perspective got secularized and morphed into the particularly American paranoid distrust of institutions that has caused at least as many problems as it has solved. In fact, I think the American obsession with homeschooling has those same Puritan roots.


I think you can more readily and correctly connect the American distrust of institutions first to the treatment of the colonists by the British Empire, and later to immigration of people fleeing authoritarian countries. One also cannot dismiss the distrust in authority among put upon minorities. The British Empire was no less brutal in its American colonies than in other places.

The Puritans were always few in number and were demographically displaced by later immigration around the fishing industry in New England.


Displaced in terms of total population, but the aristocracy of the US was mostly Mayflower types will into the 20th Century.

I think some overstate the influence of Radical Protestants on American ideology with offhand references to Max Weber or by calling whatever their pet cause is a fight against "secular puritanism." On the other hand, I do think there are some interesting parallels.

For example, one could argue that the mistreatment of colonists by the mother country was overstated by a population already distrustful of the Crown. I'm no expert, but it would be interesting to read more about that dynamic.


I don't disagree, but the descendants of the Puritans stopped being Puritans pretty quickly. The Halfway Covenant was only about 40 years after they landed in Plymouth and there were virtually no Puritans by 1740.


"Pretty quickly" may be an exaggeration there, given that 1740 was a good five generations after the founding of the Plymouth colony, and they were still famously conducting witch trials only fifty years earlier.

But it surely did happen -- IIRC, Adams and Jefferson were both noting in their correspondence how by the end of the 18th century most of the Puritan descendants had somehow become Unitarians.


Like I said, the halfway covenant was less than 2 generations after landing, and the character of Puritanism in America was totally different after that point.


IANAH but I'm not sure one can really separate "treatment of the colonists by the British Empire" from the struggle between Dissenters and the Established Church. Yes, Puritans were relatively few in number but they were influential. Later colonists would have had to fit themselves into the society created by the Puritans, if nothing else by constituting their own power base in opposition to the Puritan one. They are still part of our foundational myth and buckle-shoe-wearing caricatures of them /still/ go up all over the country every single November.


> Yes, Puritans were relatively few in number but they were influential

They were influential in a narrow geography of the Massachusetts Bay Colony for about 50 years. Their own children and grandchildren largely rejected Puritanism resulting in the Half-Way Covenant and the eventual demise of Puritanism. I agree that they're part of the foundational myth, but it's just that myth.


I don't think that's particularly accurate for the US. Perhaps some of the Protestant settler communities were very literate, but I'm quite certain literacy would have been far lower by the time the country was actually founded, as slaves were imported and immigration from other communities picked up.


This seems like a suspiciously bold statement. Both in the assertion that these groups had achieved universal literacy, and in that other groups hadn't been at least as literate. Japan comes to mind, wrt the latter. Literacy, if not universal, was also widespread across the Muslim world.


> and less connected to the world around them.

Sounds like Americans were literate back then. I also suspect that most were _more_ connected to the world around them. Not the broader world, but the immediate world around them.


No offence, but your comment is quite racist.

> literacy rates among whites were not much different than they are today. It is one of the bright spots of American history;

The rates only looked okay if you cut out at least 20% of thr population?

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_racial_and_ethnic...

Yeah, it was okay in New England but many states had laws preventing slave education.


It’s racist to break out statistics along what was literally the single most determinative factor for life outcomes in antebellum America?


No its racist to claim that literacy rates in the States were the highest in the world.

As long as you ignore all those pesky non-whites.


Unless the original commenters sneak-edited their comment, they included the word "whites" specifically to not ignore the non-whites and point out that universal literacy was not "universal" in the early US.


> > 150 years ago, the average person was illiterate

> Not true in the case of the US, which famously adopted a culture of universal literacy earlier than the rest of the world.

Later on the a small caviet about it being for whites only, but then goes back to ignoring it by saying

> It may or may not be relevant to your point, but at least in the US the idea that the average person was illiterate is ahistorical. They were the best read population in the world 150 years ago, and took some pride in that.

The average person had a 20% chance of being enslaved and illiterate. Of the remaining ~80% there was high rates, but there was absolutely not universal literacy when there were strict laws in place to prevent it.




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