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Didn't one of the major current chocolate makers (Nestle?) get their start when patents stopped being a thing in their home country for a few years?


I didn't see any information on it, but it would make me wonder: Did this mean they got started because they stole someone else's idea, and then get to continue after patents were reintroduced?


Yeah, read an article on it a few years ago, pointing out the hypocrisy of it.

Not 100% sure the chocolate maker was Nestle, though the time frame fits. It could have been some other one, most likely Swiss or Dutch.




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