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thats not how tariffs work, thats not how international trade works, and it has never worked that way.

there is no right to any goods or services provided by a foreign entity. none.

prove me wrong by providing a link to a law, treaty, or other official rule that says otherwise. i'll wait.



Let's just think practically about what could happen. Suppose the chief executive has a grudge against an individual person. He or she bans them from owning anything produced overseas. Legal or not, I think we can agree that shouldn't be possible.


That has nothing to do with the current case.

You violate US law by spying on citizens, you get banned. As a foreign company you don't get a right to a trial.

The US Government does not have a relationship with your users - you do. If you get banned, your users have a right to sue you to recoup their costs. The US Government does not owe your users anything.

If you get banned from the supermarket for not wearing a mask, the supermarket doesn't owe anything to whoever you were making dinner for.


>You violate US law by spying on citizens, you get banned. As a foreign company you don't get a right to a trial.

If there's no trial, who is to say that any law was violated?


It's literally a requirement of operating in China for the company to share that data with the CCP in full.




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